Answer from L (4.04):

It's a story, silly.

Answer from Henry R.S. (14.9.03) & (2.11.03)

When Jesus said "My God, my God why have you forsaken me" he is quoting
Psalm 22. Which basically goes on to say no matter how far you feel from
God you can never be separated from him and should always trust that he
knows best (oh and that God is brilliant, but that's a given coz that's what
all the psalms say). So maybe he died before he finished the psalm or just
thought we'd look it up?
He is fully man and fully God and that's the point. The whole of 'The Last
Temptation of Christ' revolves around this point.
Interestingly Jesus' last words are different in Luke ch23 v46 "Father into
thy hands I commit my spirit!" and in John ch19 v30 "It is accomplished" (or
"finished" depending on translation). Personally I think John's version is
the most appropriate of the three, relief and pride that he has accomplished
the ultimate.

Dear H
Don't know the RC answer and don't know where to start looking.
Yes the psalm is good. its an expression of his forsakenness i.e. how he
FEELS not a piece of teaching. It is only in Math and Mark not L or J. It
is both 'a radical expression of the loneliness of Jesus' suffering
..abandoned by men .... forsaken by God'
It also expresses a radical belief in God: " MY God, MY God ...". - a
belief that will not let go of God even in the most extreme of
circumstances.
"The cry clings to the fact that God is real at all times, even in those
times when neither experience nor thought can lay hold on him" Eduard
Schweizer "The Good News according to Mark"
Hope that helps?

From MW (23.6.03)

Most Catholics I know believe (however reluctantly) what has come to be the
standard Christian teaching on this tricky verse, i.e. that Jesus was
actually separated from God at the moment of his death because that was the
only way he could properly atone for the sins of mankind. Although the
fragmentation of the Trinity is almost unthinkable, part of the point of
Jesus's death was that he endured being human; if he had 'been' God, to the
exclusion of humanity, then it wouldn't have been a big deal for him to die
on the cross. This isn't to contradict Jesus's divinity, but I think most
Christians agree that he was also totally human.
If that sounds like religious doublethink, I probably just haven't explained
it very well.

--

Which is great as far as it goes. But I'm still interested to know how God can possibly be absent from God - Got the omnipresent, omnipotent. So, any further explanations are more than welcome.